Skip to article frontmatterSkip to article content
Site not loading correctly?

This may be due to an incorrect BASE_URL configuration. See the MyST Documentation for reference.

Though we have accepted the formula for the standard normal density function since Data 8, we have never proved that it is indeed a density – that it integrates to 1. We have also not checked that its expectation exists, nor that its SD is 1.

It’s time to do all that and thereby ensure that our calculations involving normal densities are legitimate.

We will start by recalling some facts about the apparently unrelated Rayleigh distribution, which we encountered as the distribution of the square root of an exponential variable.

Let TT have the exponential (1/2)(1/2) distribution. Then that V=TV = \sqrt{T} has the Rayleigh distribution, with density given by

fV(v)=ve12v2,    v>0f_V(v) = ve^{-\frac{1}{2}v^2}, ~~~~ v > 0

and cdf given by

FV(v)=1e12v2,    v>0F_V(v) = 1 - e^{-\frac{1}{2}v^2}, ~~~~ v > 0

In fact there is a family of Rayleigh distributions, each of whose members has the distribution of cVcV for some positive constant cc. But let us define VV to have “the” Rayleigh distribution, and let’s see what VV has to do with standard normal variables.

🎥 See More
Loading...

18.1.1The Constant of Integration

Let XX and YY be independent standard normal variables. Since we haven’t yet proved that the constant of integration in the standard normal density should be 1/2π1/\sqrt{2\pi}, let’s just call it cc. Then, by independence, the joint density of XX and YY is

f(x,y) = ce12x2ce12y2 = c2e12(x2+y2),    <x,y<f(x, y) ~ = ~ c e^{-\frac{1}{2}x^2} \cdot c e^{-\frac{1}{2}y^2} ~ = ~ c^2 e^{-\frac{1}{2}(x^2 + y^2)}, ~~~~ -\infty < x, y < \infty

The joint density at (x,y)(x, y) is a function of x2+y2x^2 + y^2. Regardless of the value of the constant cc, the joint density has circular symmetry: if two points on the plane are at the same radial distance from the origin, then the joint density is the same at those two points. Let’s make this more clear in our notation.

f(x,y) = c2e12r2    where x2+y2=r2f(x, y) ~ = ~ c^2 e^{-\frac{1}{2}r^2} ~~~~ \text{where } x^2 + y^2 = r^2

Now let R=X2+Y2R = \sqrt{X^2 + Y^2}. To find the density of RR, let’s try to calculate P(Rdr)P(R \in dr). The event is shown in the diagram below.

<matplotlib.figure.Figure at 0x1a1fd81b38>

To find the corresponding volume under the joint density surface, two observations will help.

  • Because of circular symmetry, the joint density surface is essentially at a constant height over the entire gold ring. The height is c2e12r2c^2e^{-\frac{1}{2}r^2}.

  • The area of the ring is essentially that of a rectangle with width drdr and length equal to the circumference 2πr2\pi r.

Hence

P(Rdr)  2πrdrc2e12r2,    r>0P(R \in dr) ~ \sim ~ 2\pi r \cdot dr \cdot c^2e^{-\frac{1}{2}r^2}, ~~~~ r > 0

So the density of RR is

fR(r) = 2πc2re12r2,    r>0f_R(r) ~ = ~ 2\pi c^2 r e^{-\frac{1}{2}r^2}, ~~~~ r > 0

Compare this with the Rayleigh density. The two are exactly the same except that the constants look different. The constant is 1 for the Rayleigh and 2πc22\pi c^2 for our new RR. But as both functions are densities, the constants must be equal. Hence 1=2πc2 1 = 2\pi c^2, which means

c=12πc = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}

Now we know that the standard normal density ϕ\phi is indeed a density.

ϕ(z) = 12πe12z2,    <z<\phi(z) ~ = ~ \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}} e^{-\frac{1}{2}z^2}, ~~~~ -\infty < z < \infty
<Figure size 432x288 with 1 Axes>
def indep_standard_normals(x,y):
    return 1/(2*math.pi) * np.exp(-0.5*(x**2 + y**2))

Plot_3d((-4, 4), (-4, 4), indep_standard_normals, rstride=4, cstride=4)
plt.title('Joint Density of $X$ and $Y$');
<matplotlib.figure.Figure at 0x1a1fece400>

18.1.2Expectation

If ZZ is standard normal and E(Z)E(Z) exists, then E(Z)E(Z) has to be 0 by symmetry. But you have seen in exercises that not all symmetric distributions have expectations; the Cauchy is an example. To be sure that E(Z)=0E(Z) = 0 we should first check that E(Z)E(\lvert Z \rvert) is finite. Let’s do that.

E(Z)=zϕ(z)dz=20zϕ(z)dz    (symmetry)=22π0ze12z2dz=22π      (Rayleigh density integrates to 1)=2π\begin{align*} E(\lvert Z \rvert) &= \int_{-\infty}^\infty \lvert z \rvert \phi(z)dz \\ \\ &= 2 \int_0^\infty z \phi(z)dz ~~~~ \text{(symmetry)} \\ \\ &= \frac{2}{\sqrt{2\pi}} \int_0^\infty z e^{-\frac{1}{2}z^2} dz \\ \\ &= \frac{2}{\sqrt{2\pi}} ~~~~~~ \text{(Rayleigh density integrates to 1)} \\ \\ &= \sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}} \end{align*}

Not only have we shown that E(Z)E(\lvert Z \rvert) is finite and hence E(Z)=0E(Z) = 0, but we have also found the value of E(Z)E(\lvert Z \rvert).

18.1.3Variance

If XX and YY are independent standard normal variables, then we have shown that R=X2+Y2R = \sqrt{X^2 + Y^2} has the Rayleigh distribution.

You also know that the Rayleigh distribution arises as the distribution of the square root of an exponential (1/2)(1/2) random variable.

It follows that if XX and YY are independent standard normal, then X2+Y2X^2 + Y^2 has the exponential (1/2)(1/2) distribution.

We will study this more closely in a later section. For now, let’s make two observations about expectation.

  • X2+Y2X^2 + Y^2 has the exponential (1/2)(1/2) distribution, so E(X2+Y2)=2E(X^2 + Y^2) = 2.

  • XX and YY are identically distributed, so E(X2)=E(Y2)E(X^2) = E(Y^2).

Therefore E(X2)=1E(X^2) = 1. We know that E(X)=0E(X) = 0. So Var(X)=1Var(X) = 1 and hence SD(X)=1SD(X) = 1.

🎥 See More
Loading...